When spouses, parents, and friends enable their loved ones to continue their self-destructive behaviors, they are known as:
codependent
All of the following are true statements concerning gender differences in communication EXCEPT:
Men tend to be better listeners than women.
The capacity to sense, understand, and tap into the highest parts of ourselves, others, and the world around us describes:
spiritual intelligence
All of the following are strategies for dealing with road rage EXCEPT:
Drive faster to avoid other drivers.
Sexual intercourse between a male over the age of 16 and a female under the age of consent is called:
statutory rape
Psychological health encompasses:
emotional and mental states
All of the following are effective strategies for dealing with rejection EXCEPT:
Spend time alone to collect your thoughts.
Nonverbal language makes up what percent of communication?
90%
All of the following are possible physical symptoms of a panic attack EXCEPT:
increased appetite
A condition that is characterized by a person having periodic episodes when breathing stops completely for durations of ten seconds or longer at a time is called
sleep apnea.
Another term for living together is:
cohabitation
Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is true?
It is a biological disease of the brain.
Researchers suspect panic attacks may be caused by
heredity and stress.
After a failed marriage, loss of a job, a chronic illness, and bankruptcy, John's demeanor has developed into a pattern known as
learned helplessness.
A sustained emotional state that colors our view of the world for hours or days is known as a(n):
mood
Which of the following best describes a compulsion?
repetitive behavior performed according to certain rules
Erin is concerned because she has been feeling discouraged by life and her circumstances, including feelings of guilt and worthlessness. She also expresses overall feelings of hopelessness , sadness, and despair. On the basis of her symptoms, what might she be suffering from?
depression
All of the following are recommended car phone safety tips EXCEPT:
Use a hands-free phone to avoid cognitive distraction.
An irrational, intense, and persistent fear of certain objects is known as:
a phobia
All of the following are benefits of altruism EXCEPT:
higher intelligence
Emotional health refers to:
feelings and moods
A person's belief about whether he or she can successfully engage in and execute a specific behavior is called
self-efficacy.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder is an unrealistic apprehension that causes physical symptoms and lasts for more than:
six months
The ability to be fully present in the moment defines
mindfulness.
When an individual experiences feelings of great energy and euphoria alternating with feelings of depression and despair, that person is probably suffering from:
bipolar disorder
A disorder characterized by emotional highs and lows (from mild to severe), and affecting more than 2 million Americans is reported to be
bi-polar disorder.
The number one cause of serious motor vehicle crashes is:
alcohol use
Our ability to perceive reality as it is, to respond to its challenges, and to develop rational strategies defines:
mental health
When ending a relationship, the most important thing to remember is:
Treat your ex-partner the way you would want to be treated.
A deep and persistent unreasonable fear of a specific object, activity, or situation is called
a phobia.
According to Maslow, which of the following represents our most basic needs?
food and shelter
Having feelings of emptiness, hopelessness and a sadness that does not end describes:
major depression
According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, individuals who function at the highest possible level have reached a state of:
self-actualization
Our ability to identify our basic purpose in life and to experience the fulfillment of achieving our full potential refers to:
spiritual health
REM stands for
rapid eye movement.
Which of the following best describes a traditional marriage?
The couple assumes prescribed societal roles.
All of the following are characteristic symptoms of a phobia EXCEPT:
ability to function normally despite fear
The most common motorcycle injury is:
head trauma
Another name for bipolar disorder is:
manic depression
The reason that most people give for getting married is:
love
All of the following may be risk factors for suicide EXCEPT:
compulsive behaviors
One of the most debilitating mental disorders that impairs an individual's sense of reality is called:
schizophrenia
All of the following are true of self esteem EXCEPT:
Self esteem is based on external factors.
Individuals who are true to themselves and develop independence are said to be:
autonomous
An inclination to expect the best possible outcome defines:
optimism
Which of the following may be the most difficult to communicate?
emotions
The criteria by which you evaluate things, people, events, and yourself make up your:
values
Which of the following represents an instrumental value?
being a loving parent
A negative evaluation of an entire group of people that is typically based on unfavorable and often wrong ideas about the group is called
prejudice.
Which of the following best describes an obsession?
a recurring thought, idea, or image that is senseless
Treatment for schizophrenia includes hospitalization and a combination of
medication and psychotherapy.
A major controversy over PMS has to do with whether it is classed as a(n)
mental disorder.
According to the text, which one of the keys to health and wellness embodies the ability to believe in some force that gives meaning to life and a unifying sense of belonging?
Spirituality
Lisa encourages her friend to run for student government president and she helps her emotionally prepare for the election. What type of social support is Lisa giving her friend?
expressive support
David's therapist gave him a prescription for an antidepressant. What type of mental health professional does he go to?
psychiatrist
Intensified feelings or complex patterns of reactions that we experience on a minute-by-minute, day-to-day basis are called
emotions.
According to the National Institutes of Health (NHI), which of the following groups of individuals may experience depression in "equal rates"?
college men and women
Approximately what ratio of Americans seeks help from mental health professionals at some point in their lives?
one in five
A term that encompasses mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health is
psychosocial.
The most effective long-term treatment for generalized anxiety disorders includes
individual therapy.
Seasonal affective disorder is associated with
reduced exposure to sunlight.
Another term for mental health is
psychological.
Saturday, June 1, 2013
Introduction to Health - Reproductive Choices: Making Responsible Decisions
The rate of delivery by cesarean section in the United States increased from 5 percent in the mid-1960s to more than ________ percent in 2006.
31
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) affects approximately ________ children in the United States, aged 1 month to 1 year.
1:1000
What percentage of infertile couples is able to conceive after treatment?
60 to 70
Shannon gained 27 pounds during her pregnancy. How much of that may be the baby's weight?
6 to 8 pounds
What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy if the woman is of normal weight?
25 to 35 pounds
In the past 30 years, a tremendous increase in the annual number of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) cases have resulted in about ________ women reporting having been treated for PID.
less then 1 in 10
The hormone detected in a blood test or in a woman's urine that confirms pregnancy is
HCG.
When a pregnant woman's "water breaks," what actually happens?
The amniotic sac breaks.
"Perfect use" in terms of contraceptive failure rates assumes
consistent and correct use.
Which of the following are considered fertility awareness methods?
all of these
Another name for the drug RU486 used for early term medical abortion is
mifepristone or mifeprex.
One leading cause of infertility in women is ________, which can cause sterility in 10-15 percent of women with one episode and in 50-75 percent of women after having it three or four times.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Which of the following is true about abortions?
First trimester abortions are of relatively low physical risk to the mother.
Which of the following is true about prenatal care?
It reduces the chances of infant mortality and low birth weight.
Joanne is 38 years old and in her first pregnancy. What test will her doctor recommend to detect any health defects in the fetus?
amniocentesis
Cindy smokes during her pregnancy. Her baby has a higher risk for ________ compared with a baby whose mother did not smoke during pregnancy.
miscarriage, stillbirth, premature birth, and low birth weight
During the eighth month of pregnancy, ________ forms and with time aids in development of the respiratory and digestive organs.
a layer of fat
Janice thinks she has strep throat. She will most likely be prescribed a medication that may decrease the effectiveness of her oral contraceptives. Which medication is it?
antibiotics
Annie opts for an abortion. The procedure is done by her physician. What famous legal case made Annie's choice possible?
Roe vs. Wade
At her first prenatal visit, Alani tells her medical practitioner that she loves to drink wine. What advice about alcohol consumption during pregnancy will her doctor most likely give her?
Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy.
________ was introduced as a new contraceptive in 2002 that offers protection for four weeks at a time. It works similar to a diaphragm (without special fitting) with hormones and can be worn for three weeks at a time.
NuvaRing
Nora wants to use the most effective method of birth control that allows for spontaneity. What are her other options besides the pill?
Ortho Evra, NuvaRing, and Depo-Provera
The American Academy of Pediatrics strongly recommends breastfeeding for at least six months, and ideally for twelve months because
all of the above
Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of
the fear of decreased sexual performance.
Michelle is at risk of having a baby with Down syndrome. What is the name of the procedure that involves taking a sample of tissue from the fetal sac, and can be done during the tenth to twelfth week of her pregnancy?
chorionic villus sampling
Which of the following best describes risks involved with IUD use?
increased risk of infertility and tubal infections
When is an embryo called a fetus?
at the beginning of the third month of pregnancy
Which of the following statements about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome is true?
All of these.
Which type of abortions are ruled illegal unless the mother's life is in danger?
third trimester
Marla is at the stage of birth where the cervix becomes fully dilated, and the baby's head begins to move into the vagina. What is this stage called?
transition
Vaginal film is which type of contraceptive?
spermicide
Which two problems are less likely to occur in individuals who use oral contraceptives, as opposed to those who do not?
fibrocystic breast disease and pelvic inflammatory disease
Implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called a(n)
ectopic pregnancy.
Because Susannah's Rh factor is negative and her first child's Rh factor is positive, her second child may be at risk for
hemolytic disease.
________ is a new hormonal contraceptive that is delivered via a patch.
Ortho Evra
Condoms
help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections.
A pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and fluid retention is
pre-eclampsia.
It is important for women to consume plenty of Folic Acid before and during pregnancy to prevent which condition in newborns?
Spina Bifida
Prior to obtaining a prescription for birth control pills, what is a necessary obstacle a teenage girl must overcome?
Obtain a gynecological exam prior to getting a prescription.
The first few days after birth the mother secretes a thick yellow substance from the breasts called ________ that contains vital antibodies to help the newborn fight infections.
colostrum
The female sterilization method achieved through a surgical procedure of cutting and cauterizing the fallopian tubes to seal them is called
tubal ligation.
31
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) affects approximately ________ children in the United States, aged 1 month to 1 year.
1:1000
What percentage of infertile couples is able to conceive after treatment?
60 to 70
Shannon gained 27 pounds during her pregnancy. How much of that may be the baby's weight?
6 to 8 pounds
What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy if the woman is of normal weight?
25 to 35 pounds
In the past 30 years, a tremendous increase in the annual number of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) cases have resulted in about ________ women reporting having been treated for PID.
less then 1 in 10
The hormone detected in a blood test or in a woman's urine that confirms pregnancy is
HCG.
When a pregnant woman's "water breaks," what actually happens?
The amniotic sac breaks.
"Perfect use" in terms of contraceptive failure rates assumes
consistent and correct use.
Which of the following are considered fertility awareness methods?
all of these
Another name for the drug RU486 used for early term medical abortion is
mifepristone or mifeprex.
One leading cause of infertility in women is ________, which can cause sterility in 10-15 percent of women with one episode and in 50-75 percent of women after having it three or four times.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Which of the following is true about abortions?
First trimester abortions are of relatively low physical risk to the mother.
Which of the following is true about prenatal care?
It reduces the chances of infant mortality and low birth weight.
Joanne is 38 years old and in her first pregnancy. What test will her doctor recommend to detect any health defects in the fetus?
amniocentesis
Cindy smokes during her pregnancy. Her baby has a higher risk for ________ compared with a baby whose mother did not smoke during pregnancy.
miscarriage, stillbirth, premature birth, and low birth weight
During the eighth month of pregnancy, ________ forms and with time aids in development of the respiratory and digestive organs.
a layer of fat
Janice thinks she has strep throat. She will most likely be prescribed a medication that may decrease the effectiveness of her oral contraceptives. Which medication is it?
antibiotics
Annie opts for an abortion. The procedure is done by her physician. What famous legal case made Annie's choice possible?
Roe vs. Wade
At her first prenatal visit, Alani tells her medical practitioner that she loves to drink wine. What advice about alcohol consumption during pregnancy will her doctor most likely give her?
Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy.
________ was introduced as a new contraceptive in 2002 that offers protection for four weeks at a time. It works similar to a diaphragm (without special fitting) with hormones and can be worn for three weeks at a time.
NuvaRing
Nora wants to use the most effective method of birth control that allows for spontaneity. What are her other options besides the pill?
Ortho Evra, NuvaRing, and Depo-Provera
The American Academy of Pediatrics strongly recommends breastfeeding for at least six months, and ideally for twelve months because
all of the above
Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of
the fear of decreased sexual performance.
Michelle is at risk of having a baby with Down syndrome. What is the name of the procedure that involves taking a sample of tissue from the fetal sac, and can be done during the tenth to twelfth week of her pregnancy?
chorionic villus sampling
Which of the following best describes risks involved with IUD use?
increased risk of infertility and tubal infections
When is an embryo called a fetus?
at the beginning of the third month of pregnancy
Which of the following statements about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome is true?
All of these.
Which type of abortions are ruled illegal unless the mother's life is in danger?
third trimester
Marla is at the stage of birth where the cervix becomes fully dilated, and the baby's head begins to move into the vagina. What is this stage called?
transition
Vaginal film is which type of contraceptive?
spermicide
Which two problems are less likely to occur in individuals who use oral contraceptives, as opposed to those who do not?
fibrocystic breast disease and pelvic inflammatory disease
Implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called a(n)
ectopic pregnancy.
Because Susannah's Rh factor is negative and her first child's Rh factor is positive, her second child may be at risk for
hemolytic disease.
________ is a new hormonal contraceptive that is delivered via a patch.
Ortho Evra
Condoms
help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections.
A pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and fluid retention is
pre-eclampsia.
It is important for women to consume plenty of Folic Acid before and during pregnancy to prevent which condition in newborns?
Spina Bifida
Prior to obtaining a prescription for birth control pills, what is a necessary obstacle a teenage girl must overcome?
Obtain a gynecological exam prior to getting a prescription.
The first few days after birth the mother secretes a thick yellow substance from the breasts called ________ that contains vital antibodies to help the newborn fight infections.
colostrum
The female sterilization method achieved through a surgical procedure of cutting and cauterizing the fallopian tubes to seal them is called
tubal ligation.
Introduction to Health - Sexuality: Choices in Sexual Behavior
Why does society set standards to regulate sexual behavior?
To distinguish good from bad behavior and acceptable from unacceptable behavior.
Tim avoids all sexual activity with others. Tim's choice is called
celibacy.
Where does the male human body store sperm until it reaches full maturity?
epididymis
Eric and Sarah begin kissing and fondling each other. Their initial physiological reactions to this stimulation are found in which stage of the sexual response?
excitement/arousal
Which is true about sexual development?
The hormone responsible for penis development is testosterone.
At about day fourteen of the cycle, during the ________ phase, a mature ovarian follicle releases an egg into the fallopian tube.
proliferative
Greg has an irrational fear of homosexuality. He is disgusted by homosexual behavior and has a fear that he might have homosexual feelings himself. Greg is
homophobic.
Alcohol
can impair sexual response.
The female organ in which a fetus develops is the
uterus.
Which of the following is true about erectile dysfunction?
At some time in his life, every man experiences erectile dysfunction.
Transsexuals do not necessarily exhibit exclusively female or male primary and secondary sex characteristics.
False
Fertilization of an egg by sperm takes place in the
fallopian tubes.
Semen is usually, but not always, ejaculated from the penis during the orgasmic phase.
True
The neck portion or lower end of the womb or uterus is called the
cervix.
The most commonly practiced form of sexual expression for couples is
coitus.
Toxic shock syndrome, although rare today, is still a concern and is caused by a bacterial infection facilitated by tampon or diaphragm use.
True
Monica found out she is having a baby boy. What is the sex chromosome characteristic of her baby?
XY
When a woman is unable to achieve orgasm, this is referred to as
female orgasmic disorder.
Maria is fifty years old and has not had a period in more than six months. She also has been having hot flashes and headaches. Maria is probably entering
menopause.
The passageway from the uterus to the outside of a female's body is called the cervix.
False
Rachel is going through puberty. She is noticing her breasts are growing and she is developing underarm and pubic hair. These changes are the development of ________ characteristics.
secondary sex
During what phase might a man secrete pre-ejaculatory fluid?
the plateau phase
Researchers today agree that sexual orientation is best understood by using
a multifactorial model.
Jan experiences pain during intercourse. Her pain is called
dyspareunia.
Fertilization takes place in the uterus.
False
The highly sensitive female sexual organ located near the vaginal opening is the
clitoris.
What is it called when a person does not exhibit exclusively male or female primary and secondary sex characteristics?
intersexuality
Haley had been having a sexual relationship with Josh for two years when she found that she also had sexual feelings for Sara, her roommate's best friend. Haley's sexual orientation is
bisexual.
The primary function of the ________ is to secrete a fluid that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes acid that remains in the urethra after urination.
Cowper's gland
Observing others for the purpose of one's own sexual gratification is called
voyeurism.
The goal of autoerotic behavior is
sexual self-stimulation.
A person's enduring emotional, romantic, sexual, or affectionate attraction to other persons refers to
sexual orientation.
Patrick usually has to wait before he can regain an erection after an orgasm. This phase is called the ________ phase.
refractory
To distinguish good from bad behavior and acceptable from unacceptable behavior.
Tim avoids all sexual activity with others. Tim's choice is called
celibacy.
Where does the male human body store sperm until it reaches full maturity?
epididymis
Eric and Sarah begin kissing and fondling each other. Their initial physiological reactions to this stimulation are found in which stage of the sexual response?
excitement/arousal
Which is true about sexual development?
The hormone responsible for penis development is testosterone.
At about day fourteen of the cycle, during the ________ phase, a mature ovarian follicle releases an egg into the fallopian tube.
proliferative
Greg has an irrational fear of homosexuality. He is disgusted by homosexual behavior and has a fear that he might have homosexual feelings himself. Greg is
homophobic.
Alcohol
can impair sexual response.
The female organ in which a fetus develops is the
uterus.
Which of the following is true about erectile dysfunction?
At some time in his life, every man experiences erectile dysfunction.
Transsexuals do not necessarily exhibit exclusively female or male primary and secondary sex characteristics.
False
Fertilization of an egg by sperm takes place in the
fallopian tubes.
Semen is usually, but not always, ejaculated from the penis during the orgasmic phase.
True
The neck portion or lower end of the womb or uterus is called the
cervix.
The most commonly practiced form of sexual expression for couples is
coitus.
Toxic shock syndrome, although rare today, is still a concern and is caused by a bacterial infection facilitated by tampon or diaphragm use.
True
Monica found out she is having a baby boy. What is the sex chromosome characteristic of her baby?
XY
When a woman is unable to achieve orgasm, this is referred to as
female orgasmic disorder.
Maria is fifty years old and has not had a period in more than six months. She also has been having hot flashes and headaches. Maria is probably entering
menopause.
The passageway from the uterus to the outside of a female's body is called the cervix.
False
Rachel is going through puberty. She is noticing her breasts are growing and she is developing underarm and pubic hair. These changes are the development of ________ characteristics.
secondary sex
During what phase might a man secrete pre-ejaculatory fluid?
the plateau phase
Researchers today agree that sexual orientation is best understood by using
a multifactorial model.
Jan experiences pain during intercourse. Her pain is called
dyspareunia.
Fertilization takes place in the uterus.
False
The highly sensitive female sexual organ located near the vaginal opening is the
clitoris.
What is it called when a person does not exhibit exclusively male or female primary and secondary sex characteristics?
intersexuality
Haley had been having a sexual relationship with Josh for two years when she found that she also had sexual feelings for Sara, her roommate's best friend. Haley's sexual orientation is
bisexual.
The primary function of the ________ is to secrete a fluid that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes acid that remains in the urethra after urination.
Cowper's gland
Observing others for the purpose of one's own sexual gratification is called
voyeurism.
The goal of autoerotic behavior is
sexual self-stimulation.
A person's enduring emotional, romantic, sexual, or affectionate attraction to other persons refers to
sexual orientation.
Patrick usually has to wait before he can regain an erection after an orgasm. This phase is called the ________ phase.
refractory
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 15
Which one of the following statements about self-concept and self-esteem is FALSE?
If a positive self-concept doesn't develop during childhood, successful interpersonal relationships are impossible later in life.
Which one of the following remains stable in most healthy older adults?
intelligence
Which one of the following statements about successful families is TRUE?
Family members may seek professional counseling to deal with conflict and other family problems.
Presbyopia is
the inability of the eyes to focus sharply on nearby objects.
Release of ________ into the atmosphere is a primary reason for the depletion of the ozone layer.
chlorofluorocarbons
All of the following are keys to good communication in a relationship EXCEPT
generalization.
Which of the following statements about volunteering is FALSE?
Activities without personal contact are most effective for boosting wellness.
Time together, spiritual wellness, and coping with crisis are all characteristics of
successful families.
A major quality common in strong families is spiritual wellness, which is best described as:
The family promotes sharing, love, and compassion for other human beings.
A major quality common in strong families is commitment, which is best described as:
The family is very important to its members; sexual fidelity between partners is basic to the agreement to form a family.
All of the following are appropriate reasons to visit the emergency room at your local hospital EXCEPT
sore throat.
Traditional health insurance plans
have a fixed deductible.
Managed-care plans
restrict which physicians may be used.
Which of the following statements about complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) is true?
Dietary supplements can interact dangerously with prescription and over-the-counter drugs.
Strategies for good communication with your physician include all of the following EXCEPT
save your major concerns until the doctor brings them up.
Self-disclosure, listening, and feedback are all characteristics of
good communication.
A component of good communication that increases feelings of closeness and allows the relationship to move to a deeper level of intimacy is
self-disclosure.
Companionship, respect, and acceptance are all characteristics of
friendship.
Clarifying, negotiating, and brainstorming are all characteristics of
conflict resolution.
Over-the-counter drugs include all of the following EXCEPT
antibiotics.
Which of the following statements about body composition and aging is TRUE?
Bone mass and muscle mass decrease with aging.
A major quality common in strong families is appreciation, which is best described as:
People care about one another and express that caring. The home is a positive place to be.
Acid precipitation is a by-product of
pollutants from coal-burning electric power plants.
As smokers age, they tend to experience all of the following at a younger age than nonsmokers EXCEPT
burnout.
The key factor in the greenhouse effect is
burning of fossil fuels.
The over-the-counter medication that should NOT be given to children with flulike symptoms is
aspirin.
A major quality common in strong families is communication, which is best described as:
People spend time listening to one another and enjoying one another's company. They talk about disagreements and attempt to solve problems.
Which one of the following is an underlying factor in many of today's environmental problems?
rapid expansion of human population
The world population in 2000 was about
6 billion.
Which one of the following statements about marriage is FALSE?
Love is enough to make a marriage successful.
If a positive self-concept doesn't develop during childhood, successful interpersonal relationships are impossible later in life.
Which one of the following remains stable in most healthy older adults?
intelligence
Which one of the following statements about successful families is TRUE?
Family members may seek professional counseling to deal with conflict and other family problems.
Presbyopia is
the inability of the eyes to focus sharply on nearby objects.
Release of ________ into the atmosphere is a primary reason for the depletion of the ozone layer.
chlorofluorocarbons
All of the following are keys to good communication in a relationship EXCEPT
generalization.
Which of the following statements about volunteering is FALSE?
Activities without personal contact are most effective for boosting wellness.
Time together, spiritual wellness, and coping with crisis are all characteristics of
successful families.
A major quality common in strong families is spiritual wellness, which is best described as:
The family promotes sharing, love, and compassion for other human beings.
A major quality common in strong families is commitment, which is best described as:
The family is very important to its members; sexual fidelity between partners is basic to the agreement to form a family.
All of the following are appropriate reasons to visit the emergency room at your local hospital EXCEPT
sore throat.
Traditional health insurance plans
have a fixed deductible.
Managed-care plans
restrict which physicians may be used.
Which of the following statements about complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) is true?
Dietary supplements can interact dangerously with prescription and over-the-counter drugs.
Strategies for good communication with your physician include all of the following EXCEPT
save your major concerns until the doctor brings them up.
Self-disclosure, listening, and feedback are all characteristics of
good communication.
A component of good communication that increases feelings of closeness and allows the relationship to move to a deeper level of intimacy is
self-disclosure.
Companionship, respect, and acceptance are all characteristics of
friendship.
Clarifying, negotiating, and brainstorming are all characteristics of
conflict resolution.
Over-the-counter drugs include all of the following EXCEPT
antibiotics.
Which of the following statements about body composition and aging is TRUE?
Bone mass and muscle mass decrease with aging.
A major quality common in strong families is appreciation, which is best described as:
People care about one another and express that caring. The home is a positive place to be.
Acid precipitation is a by-product of
pollutants from coal-burning electric power plants.
As smokers age, they tend to experience all of the following at a younger age than nonsmokers EXCEPT
burnout.
The key factor in the greenhouse effect is
burning of fossil fuels.
The over-the-counter medication that should NOT be given to children with flulike symptoms is
aspirin.
A major quality common in strong families is communication, which is best described as:
People spend time listening to one another and enjoying one another's company. They talk about disagreements and attempt to solve problems.
Which one of the following is an underlying factor in many of today's environmental problems?
rapid expansion of human population
The world population in 2000 was about
6 billion.
Which one of the following statements about marriage is FALSE?
Love is enough to make a marriage successful.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 14
A single-celled organism that thrives in warm, moist conditions is a description of
Trichomonas vaginalis.
Worldwide, the most common route of HIV infection is
heterosexual contact.
Herpes is best defined as a
common viral infection characterized by recurrent outbreaks of blisterlike sores.
A chancre is an indication of
syphilis.
The time between the initial HIV infection and the onset of major disease symptoms in an untreated person is usually
years.
Needlesharing among drug users often leads to HIV transmission because
needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV.
The most common method of HIV transmission is
having unprotected sex.
Which one of the following statements about condom use is TRUE?
It's important to remove air bubbles from the reservoir tip before using a condom.
Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
genital warts
Genital HPV infection is best defined as a
sexually transmitted disease caused by a virus and characterized by the appearance of dry, rough growths on the genital area of men and women.
Syphilis is best defined as
a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium called Treponema pallidum.
Which of the following statements about hepatitis B is FALSE?
There is a cure for the infection.
The major viral STDs are not curable with current therapies.
True
HIV can live on toilet seats and eating utensils.
False
Dementia, cardiovascular damage, blindness, and death are possible complications of
tertiary syphilis.
Which one of the following statements about gonorrhea is true?
Most women with gonorrhea have no symptoms.
Vertical transmission of HIV refers to _____ transmission.
mother-to-child
Previous infection with a bacterial STD confers immunity, so once a person has had chlamydia or gonorrhea, she or he can't be reinfected.
False
Genital warts are difficult to treat effectively because
available treatments do not eradicate the virus.
The most reported bacterial STD is
chlamydia.
Which one of the following statements about HIV infection is TRUE?
It is preventable.
Bacterial vaginosis occurs when healthy bacteria that normally inhabit the vagina
are displaced by unhealthy species.
HIV can survive
in blood.
The organism that causes genital warts is
HPV.
Which of the following STDs is curable with current therapies?
syphilis
A common complication of gonorrhea and chlamydia is
pelvic inflammatory disease.
HIV attacks the
immune system.
Which one of the following is linked to cervical cancer?
genital HPV infection
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is best defined as
an infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the oviducts and pelvic cavity.
Jaundice is a symptom of
hepatitis B.
Trichomonas vaginalis.
Worldwide, the most common route of HIV infection is
heterosexual contact.
Herpes is best defined as a
common viral infection characterized by recurrent outbreaks of blisterlike sores.
A chancre is an indication of
syphilis.
The time between the initial HIV infection and the onset of major disease symptoms in an untreated person is usually
years.
Needlesharing among drug users often leads to HIV transmission because
needles may be contaminated with blood that contains HIV.
The most common method of HIV transmission is
having unprotected sex.
Which one of the following statements about condom use is TRUE?
It's important to remove air bubbles from the reservoir tip before using a condom.
Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
genital warts
Genital HPV infection is best defined as a
sexually transmitted disease caused by a virus and characterized by the appearance of dry, rough growths on the genital area of men and women.
Syphilis is best defined as
a sexually transmitted disease caused by a bacterium called Treponema pallidum.
Which of the following statements about hepatitis B is FALSE?
There is a cure for the infection.
The major viral STDs are not curable with current therapies.
True
HIV can live on toilet seats and eating utensils.
False
Dementia, cardiovascular damage, blindness, and death are possible complications of
tertiary syphilis.
Which one of the following statements about gonorrhea is true?
Most women with gonorrhea have no symptoms.
Vertical transmission of HIV refers to _____ transmission.
mother-to-child
Previous infection with a bacterial STD confers immunity, so once a person has had chlamydia or gonorrhea, she or he can't be reinfected.
False
Genital warts are difficult to treat effectively because
available treatments do not eradicate the virus.
The most reported bacterial STD is
chlamydia.
Which one of the following statements about HIV infection is TRUE?
It is preventable.
Bacterial vaginosis occurs when healthy bacteria that normally inhabit the vagina
are displaced by unhealthy species.
HIV can survive
in blood.
The organism that causes genital warts is
HPV.
Which of the following STDs is curable with current therapies?
syphilis
A common complication of gonorrhea and chlamydia is
pelvic inflammatory disease.
HIV attacks the
immune system.
Which one of the following is linked to cervical cancer?
genital HPV infection
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is best defined as
an infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the oviducts and pelvic cavity.
Jaundice is a symptom of
hepatitis B.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 13
For men, binge drinking is defined as having _____ drink in a row.
4 to 5
Which of the following behavioral factors has been found to increase the chances of a smoker's permanently quitting?
exercising regularly
The alcohol concentration of a beverage that is 100 proof is
50%.
Which one of the following is associated with cirrhosis?
replacement of liver cells with fibrous scar tissue
Requiring more of a substance to get the same desired effect is called
tolerance.
Compared to nonabusers of alcohol, the average life span of an alcohol abuser is _____ years shorter.
10–12
A shy person who drinks several alcoholic beverages at a party and becomes very loud and social is experiencing the effects of alcohol
intoxication.
Alcohol is related to which of the following types of cancer?
all of the choices are true
Alcohol is transformed into energy and other products in the
liver.
Which one of the following requires a prescription?
nicotine nasal spray
Negative consequences associated with binge drinking include
all of the choices are true
People who are most severely affected by exposure to ETS are
children.
The predominant psychoactive drug in tobacco is
nicotine.
People are considered legally drunk when their BAC is
0.08%.
For women, binge drinking is defined as having _____ drink(s) in a row.
3 to 4
Alcohol has all of the following effects on the body EXCEPT
enhanced sexual functioning.
Which of the following is true about addictive behaviors?
They tend to become the focus of the person's life.
A contemporary term for what was formerly called addiction is
dependence.
Spit tobacco use
all of the choices are true
If you come in contact with a person who has been drinking and is unconscious, you should
place the person on his or her side and watch for breathing difficulties.
Alcohol is similar to other psychoactive drugs in that
all of the choices are correct
The approximate amount of alcohol that the body can metabolize in 1 hour is
1/2 of a beer or drink.
A characteristic that indicates drug dependence is
withdrawal.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy to stop smoking?
Keep your goal to yourself so that others won't know if you fail.
All of the following are characteristics associated with addictive behavior EXCEPT
improved control.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a psychoactive drug?
aspirin
Recurrent drug use in situations in which it is physically hazardous, such as before driving a car, is an example of
drug abuse.
The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome are
both physical and mental impairments.
A person who quits smoking may experience all of the following EXCEPT
decreased blood oxygen level.
A psychoactive drug is one that
alters a person's experiences or consciousness.
4 to 5
Which of the following behavioral factors has been found to increase the chances of a smoker's permanently quitting?
exercising regularly
The alcohol concentration of a beverage that is 100 proof is
50%.
Which one of the following is associated with cirrhosis?
replacement of liver cells with fibrous scar tissue
Requiring more of a substance to get the same desired effect is called
tolerance.
Compared to nonabusers of alcohol, the average life span of an alcohol abuser is _____ years shorter.
10–12
A shy person who drinks several alcoholic beverages at a party and becomes very loud and social is experiencing the effects of alcohol
intoxication.
Alcohol is related to which of the following types of cancer?
all of the choices are true
Alcohol is transformed into energy and other products in the
liver.
Which one of the following requires a prescription?
nicotine nasal spray
Negative consequences associated with binge drinking include
all of the choices are true
People who are most severely affected by exposure to ETS are
children.
The predominant psychoactive drug in tobacco is
nicotine.
People are considered legally drunk when their BAC is
0.08%.
For women, binge drinking is defined as having _____ drink(s) in a row.
3 to 4
Alcohol has all of the following effects on the body EXCEPT
enhanced sexual functioning.
Which of the following is true about addictive behaviors?
They tend to become the focus of the person's life.
A contemporary term for what was formerly called addiction is
dependence.
Spit tobacco use
all of the choices are true
If you come in contact with a person who has been drinking and is unconscious, you should
place the person on his or her side and watch for breathing difficulties.
Alcohol is similar to other psychoactive drugs in that
all of the choices are correct
The approximate amount of alcohol that the body can metabolize in 1 hour is
1/2 of a beer or drink.
A characteristic that indicates drug dependence is
withdrawal.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy to stop smoking?
Keep your goal to yourself so that others won't know if you fail.
All of the following are characteristics associated with addictive behavior EXCEPT
improved control.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a psychoactive drug?
aspirin
Recurrent drug use in situations in which it is physically hazardous, such as before driving a car, is an example of
drug abuse.
The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome are
both physical and mental impairments.
A person who quits smoking may experience all of the following EXCEPT
decreased blood oxygen level.
A psychoactive drug is one that
alters a person's experiences or consciousness.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 12
Which of the following risk factors is most clearly linked to skin cancer?
exposing skin to ultraviolet radiation
Which of the following best describes the function of suppressor genes?
They control or restrict cell growth; if a suppressor gene is damaged, cell growth speeds up, thereby increasing cancer risk.
Any substance that causes cancer is called a(n)
carcinogen.
The Pap test is used to help detect which type of cancer?
cervical
Risk factors for endometrial cancer include all of the following EXCEPT
use of oral contraceptives.
Carcinogens are best described as
substances or factors that mutate genes and cause cancer.
Daniel has a family history of colon cancer. To lower his personal risk of the disease, he should consider doing all of the following EXCEPT
increasing his intake of red meat.
Eighty percent of the cases of liver cancer worldwide are caused by infection with
hepatitis B and C viruses.
Which one of the following is a good source of phytochemicals?
broccoli
What do obesity and alcohol use have in common that increases breast cancer risk?
They increase estrogen levels in the blood.
The most common cause of cancer death in the United States is
lung cancer.
The most common cancer for men aged 20 to 35 is _____ cancer.
testicular
The major risk factor for cervical cancer is
infection with human papillomavirus (genital warts).
The most common cancer in men is
prostate cancer.
The chief risk factor for lung cancer is
tobacco smoke.
Melanoma can occur
anywhere on the body.
Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States.
False
The American Cancer Society recommends routine use of mammography to detect breast cancer for women over age
40.
A biopsy is the removal and examination of
a small piece of body tissue.
Cancer of the uterus is called _____ cancer.
endometrial
Benign tumors are capable of invading surrounding structures and spreading to distant sites.
False
Which one of the following best describes leukemia?
malignant disease of the white blood cells
Prostate cancer can be detected by all of the following means EXCEPT
radiation.
The seven major warning signs of cancer can be remembered with the acronym
CAUTION.
A characteristic of a skin lesion that may be a melanoma is
diameter greater than one-quarter inch.
The primary difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor is that
malignant tumors can spread to other sites in the body.
A potentially dangerous additive found in beer, bacon, and processed lunch meats is
nitrate.
Cancer is best described as
an abnormal and uncontrollable growth of cells.
The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is
HPV.
Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases are
phytochemicals.
A diet high in _____ is linked to high rates of colon and prostate cancer.
fat and meat
Ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation
causes sunburn.
Which of the following is linked to the greatest number of cancer deaths?
smoking
The probable carcinogen acrylamide is found in
starch-based foods cooked at a high temperature.
Melissa uses a sunscreen with an SPF rating of 20. This means that
she can stay in the sun 20 times longer without getting burned than if she didn't use it.
A woman is more likely to get breast cancer if
she drinks two alcoholic beverages per day.
Testicular self-examination (TSE) should be conducted by men
monthly.
A diet high in which of the following may increase risk of prostate cancer?
dairy foods
Metastasis occurs when
cancer cells break off and invade other body parts.
A common test useful in early detection of colon cancers is
stool blood test.
exposing skin to ultraviolet radiation
Which of the following best describes the function of suppressor genes?
They control or restrict cell growth; if a suppressor gene is damaged, cell growth speeds up, thereby increasing cancer risk.
Any substance that causes cancer is called a(n)
carcinogen.
The Pap test is used to help detect which type of cancer?
cervical
Risk factors for endometrial cancer include all of the following EXCEPT
use of oral contraceptives.
Carcinogens are best described as
substances or factors that mutate genes and cause cancer.
Daniel has a family history of colon cancer. To lower his personal risk of the disease, he should consider doing all of the following EXCEPT
increasing his intake of red meat.
Eighty percent of the cases of liver cancer worldwide are caused by infection with
hepatitis B and C viruses.
Which one of the following is a good source of phytochemicals?
broccoli
What do obesity and alcohol use have in common that increases breast cancer risk?
They increase estrogen levels in the blood.
The most common cause of cancer death in the United States is
lung cancer.
The most common cancer for men aged 20 to 35 is _____ cancer.
testicular
The major risk factor for cervical cancer is
infection with human papillomavirus (genital warts).
The most common cancer in men is
prostate cancer.
The chief risk factor for lung cancer is
tobacco smoke.
Melanoma can occur
anywhere on the body.
Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States.
False
The American Cancer Society recommends routine use of mammography to detect breast cancer for women over age
40.
A biopsy is the removal and examination of
a small piece of body tissue.
Cancer of the uterus is called _____ cancer.
endometrial
Benign tumors are capable of invading surrounding structures and spreading to distant sites.
False
Which one of the following best describes leukemia?
malignant disease of the white blood cells
Prostate cancer can be detected by all of the following means EXCEPT
radiation.
The seven major warning signs of cancer can be remembered with the acronym
CAUTION.
A characteristic of a skin lesion that may be a melanoma is
diameter greater than one-quarter inch.
The primary difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor is that
malignant tumors can spread to other sites in the body.
A potentially dangerous additive found in beer, bacon, and processed lunch meats is
nitrate.
Cancer is best described as
an abnormal and uncontrollable growth of cells.
The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is
HPV.
Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases are
phytochemicals.
A diet high in _____ is linked to high rates of colon and prostate cancer.
fat and meat
Ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation
causes sunburn.
Which of the following is linked to the greatest number of cancer deaths?
smoking
The probable carcinogen acrylamide is found in
starch-based foods cooked at a high temperature.
Melissa uses a sunscreen with an SPF rating of 20. This means that
she can stay in the sun 20 times longer without getting burned than if she didn't use it.
A woman is more likely to get breast cancer if
she drinks two alcoholic beverages per day.
Testicular self-examination (TSE) should be conducted by men
monthly.
A diet high in which of the following may increase risk of prostate cancer?
dairy foods
Metastasis occurs when
cancer cells break off and invade other body parts.
A common test useful in early detection of colon cancers is
stool blood test.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 10
Which of the following is a characteristic of depression?
loss of pleasure in usual activities
Homeostasis is defined as a state in which
vital functions of the body are maintained at a normal level.
Which term best fits a Type A personality?
Cynical
Your body begins releasing endorphins, your heart rate accelerates, and your hearing and vision become more acute. You are experiencing
the fight-or-flight reaction.
Which of the following best describes the endocrine system?
affects body functions through the release of hormones
The sympathetic division is best defined as
a division of the autonomic nervous system that reacts to danger or other challenges by almost instantly putting the body processes in high gear.
Which one of the following characteristics is most closely associated with elevated risk of cardiovascular disease?
hostility
Which of the following is an example of an effective response to stress?
learning new skills
Which of the following statements is an example of negative self-talk?
"I won the speech contest, but only because none of the other speakers was very good."
The parasympathetic division is best defined as
a division of the autonomic nervous system that moderates the excitatory effect of the sympathetic system, slowing metabolism and restoring energy supplies.
Stress may increase risk for cardiovascular disease by increasing
blood pressure.
Which of the following is recommended by your text as a time-management strategy?
Schedule tasks for peak efficiency.
The term stress response is best defined as
the physical and emotional changes associated with stress.
The normal progression for the general adaptation syndrome is
alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
Which of the following is NOT recommended by your text as a time-management strategy?
Try doing things yourself rather than delegating.
Stress is best defined as
the general physical and emotional state associated with the stress response.
The term stressor is best defined as
any physical or psychological event that produces stress.
The long-term wear and tear of the stress response has been termed
allostatic load.
Which statement about people with hardy personalities is FALSE?
They have a strong external locus of control.
Hans Selye theorized that stress
can be either eustress or distress.
Which of the following describes a person with a Type B personality?
contemplative
The relaxation technique that asks the person to identify all the perceptible qualities of a relaxing environment is
visualization.
Progressive relaxation is best described as
an activity alternating muscle tension and relaxation.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for heading off explosive anger?
having a drink
Making the choice to go for a walk to cope with stress is controlled by which of the following nervous systems?
somatic
Stress can be the result of
all of the choices are correct.
Individuals who have trouble expressing their anger might benefit from
assertiveness training.
All of the following increase during the fight-or-flight reaction EXCEPT
digestion.
The somatic nervous system manages
conscious actions.
A person who has difficulty expressing emotions, suppresses anger, and feels hopeless has characteristics of which personality type?
Type C
A new level of homeostasis occurs during the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
resistance
Psychoneuroimmunology is an interaction of
the nervous, endocrine, and immune systems.
The fight-or-flight response occurs during the stage of the general adaptation syndrome known as
alarm.
A good nutritional strategy for coping with stress is to
limit caffeine intake.
According to Selye, eustress
is stress triggered by a pleasant event.
loss of pleasure in usual activities
Homeostasis is defined as a state in which
vital functions of the body are maintained at a normal level.
Which term best fits a Type A personality?
Cynical
Your body begins releasing endorphins, your heart rate accelerates, and your hearing and vision become more acute. You are experiencing
the fight-or-flight reaction.
Which of the following best describes the endocrine system?
affects body functions through the release of hormones
The sympathetic division is best defined as
a division of the autonomic nervous system that reacts to danger or other challenges by almost instantly putting the body processes in high gear.
Which one of the following characteristics is most closely associated with elevated risk of cardiovascular disease?
hostility
Which of the following is an example of an effective response to stress?
learning new skills
Which of the following statements is an example of negative self-talk?
"I won the speech contest, but only because none of the other speakers was very good."
The parasympathetic division is best defined as
a division of the autonomic nervous system that moderates the excitatory effect of the sympathetic system, slowing metabolism and restoring energy supplies.
Stress may increase risk for cardiovascular disease by increasing
blood pressure.
Which of the following is recommended by your text as a time-management strategy?
Schedule tasks for peak efficiency.
The term stress response is best defined as
the physical and emotional changes associated with stress.
The normal progression for the general adaptation syndrome is
alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
Which of the following is NOT recommended by your text as a time-management strategy?
Try doing things yourself rather than delegating.
Stress is best defined as
the general physical and emotional state associated with the stress response.
The term stressor is best defined as
any physical or psychological event that produces stress.
The long-term wear and tear of the stress response has been termed
allostatic load.
Which statement about people with hardy personalities is FALSE?
They have a strong external locus of control.
Hans Selye theorized that stress
can be either eustress or distress.
Which of the following describes a person with a Type B personality?
contemplative
The relaxation technique that asks the person to identify all the perceptible qualities of a relaxing environment is
visualization.
Progressive relaxation is best described as
an activity alternating muscle tension and relaxation.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for heading off explosive anger?
having a drink
Making the choice to go for a walk to cope with stress is controlled by which of the following nervous systems?
somatic
Stress can be the result of
all of the choices are correct.
Individuals who have trouble expressing their anger might benefit from
assertiveness training.
All of the following increase during the fight-or-flight reaction EXCEPT
digestion.
The somatic nervous system manages
conscious actions.
A person who has difficulty expressing emotions, suppresses anger, and feels hopeless has characteristics of which personality type?
Type C
A new level of homeostasis occurs during the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
resistance
Psychoneuroimmunology is an interaction of
the nervous, endocrine, and immune systems.
The fight-or-flight response occurs during the stage of the general adaptation syndrome known as
alarm.
A good nutritional strategy for coping with stress is to
limit caffeine intake.
According to Selye, eustress
is stress triggered by a pleasant event.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 9
Muscle dysmorphia is characterized by
distorted body image, in which individuals that see themselves as small and out of shape despite being muscular.
A person's ongoing internal comments and discussion is called
self-talk.
Americans today _____ compared with Americans of 100 years ago.
consume fewer complex carbohydrates
Resting metabolic rate is
the energy required to maintain vital body functions.
A history of weight loss reduces metabolic rate.
True
Adverse effects of ephedra include all of the following EXCEPT
lethargy.
Which of the following groups is more likely to consume excess calories throughout the day?
those who skip breakfast
The drug used to facilitate weight loss by blocking fat absorption is
orlistat.
Women usually have higher metabolic rates than men.
False
Which one of the following is the largest component of metabolism?
resting metabolism
Which of the following foods is a good source of complex carbohydrates?
vegetables
Over the past 100 years, daily energy expenditure among Americans has decreased by about _____ calories.
200
On average, Americans spend more than ten times more time watching television each day than they do exercising.
True
According to the National Institutes of Health, about ________ of American adults are overweight.
65%
Disturbed eating patterns can develop when food is used to regulate emotions.
True
Which of the following patterns of eating is best for weight management?
three planned meals per day plus planned snacks
If you are trying to maintain weight loss, authorities recommend at least 60 minutes of moderate physical activity per day.
True
The fiber in diet pills
acts as a bulking agent in the large intestine and not in the stomach.
People with body dysmorphic disorder
are at increased risk for depression and suicide.
How much daily physical activity is recommended for someone who is trying to maintain weight loss?
60 or more minutes
Weight loss of _______ of body weight is enough to reduce health risks and increase life expectancy in obese individuals.
5–10%
People who eat out usually consume more calories than people who eat at home.
True
Individuals who increase their fat-free mass increase their metabolic rate.
True
To lose one pound of weight per week, a daily negative energy balance of ________ calories is needed.
500
After several weeks of a program of moderate weight loss, mostly _____ is being lost.
fat
Prescription drugs that treat obesity
produce modest weight loss.
An eating disorder characterized by a refusal to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight is
anorexia nervosa.
The primary role of resistance training in weight management is to
build muscle mass.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by
alternating binge eating and purging through vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics.
Unrefined complex carbohydrates
promote feelings of satiety.
The greater the amount of muscle mass, the
higher the resting metabolic rate.
Which of the following statements about genetic factors in obesity is true?
Genetic factors influence where on the body extra weight is added.
A hormone thought to be linked to obesity is
leptin.
A negative energy balance of _______calories is needed to produce a one pound weight loss.
3500
Fat substitutes
can be carbohydrate or protein based.
distorted body image, in which individuals that see themselves as small and out of shape despite being muscular.
A person's ongoing internal comments and discussion is called
self-talk.
Americans today _____ compared with Americans of 100 years ago.
consume fewer complex carbohydrates
Resting metabolic rate is
the energy required to maintain vital body functions.
A history of weight loss reduces metabolic rate.
True
Adverse effects of ephedra include all of the following EXCEPT
lethargy.
Which of the following groups is more likely to consume excess calories throughout the day?
those who skip breakfast
The drug used to facilitate weight loss by blocking fat absorption is
orlistat.
Women usually have higher metabolic rates than men.
False
Which one of the following is the largest component of metabolism?
resting metabolism
Which of the following foods is a good source of complex carbohydrates?
vegetables
Over the past 100 years, daily energy expenditure among Americans has decreased by about _____ calories.
200
On average, Americans spend more than ten times more time watching television each day than they do exercising.
True
According to the National Institutes of Health, about ________ of American adults are overweight.
65%
Disturbed eating patterns can develop when food is used to regulate emotions.
True
Which of the following patterns of eating is best for weight management?
three planned meals per day plus planned snacks
If you are trying to maintain weight loss, authorities recommend at least 60 minutes of moderate physical activity per day.
True
The fiber in diet pills
acts as a bulking agent in the large intestine and not in the stomach.
People with body dysmorphic disorder
are at increased risk for depression and suicide.
How much daily physical activity is recommended for someone who is trying to maintain weight loss?
60 or more minutes
Weight loss of _______ of body weight is enough to reduce health risks and increase life expectancy in obese individuals.
5–10%
People who eat out usually consume more calories than people who eat at home.
True
Individuals who increase their fat-free mass increase their metabolic rate.
True
To lose one pound of weight per week, a daily negative energy balance of ________ calories is needed.
500
After several weeks of a program of moderate weight loss, mostly _____ is being lost.
fat
Prescription drugs that treat obesity
produce modest weight loss.
An eating disorder characterized by a refusal to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight is
anorexia nervosa.
The primary role of resistance training in weight management is to
build muscle mass.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by
alternating binge eating and purging through vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics.
Unrefined complex carbohydrates
promote feelings of satiety.
The greater the amount of muscle mass, the
higher the resting metabolic rate.
Which of the following statements about genetic factors in obesity is true?
Genetic factors influence where on the body extra weight is added.
A hormone thought to be linked to obesity is
leptin.
A negative energy balance of _______calories is needed to produce a one pound weight loss.
3500
Fat substitutes
can be carbohydrate or protein based.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 8
Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of
calcium.
Which of the following is NOT a function of fats?
form important components of blood
Foods from plant sources usually provide ________ proteins.
incomplete
All of the following are true statements about dietary supplements EXCEPT
The potency of herbal supplements is consistent from brand to brand.
Excess protein in the diet
is changed into fat for energy storage.
Complete protein sources
supply all essential amino acids.
Individuals with high blood pressure may benefit from dietary restriction of
sodium.
During high-intensity exercise, muscles primarily get their energy from
carbohydrates.
Which of the following is a cruciferous vegetable?
broccoli
Protein makes up all of the following EXCEPT
adipose tissue.
Which one of the following types of fat raises the level of HDL cholesterol in the blood?
monounsaturated fatty acids
The Dietary Reference Intakes
are designed to prevent nutritional deficiencies and chronic diseases.
Which of the following is a source of incomplete protein?
beans
A by-product of hydrogenation is
trans fatty acids.
A guideline for food safety is to
cook stuffing separately from poultry.
Fiber benefits health in all of the following ways EXCEPT
lowering risk of osteoporosis.
Essential nutrients are best described as nutrients that
must be obtained from food because the body can't manufacture sufficient amounts of them.
Antioxidants
protect cells from damage by blocking the formation of free radicals.
Proteins supply the body with _____ calories of energy per gram.
4
All of the following are good strategies for reducing saturated and trans fat intake EXCEPT
using stick margarine instead of vegetable oil.
Anemia is associated with a deficiency in
iron.
Minerals
help regulate body functions.
For athletes engaged in heavy strength training the ACSM and ADA recommend protein intake of
1.7 g/kg of body weight.
All of the following are examples of fat-soluble vitamins EXCEPT vitamin
B-12.
Men's diets are most likely to include less-than-recommended levels of
fruit.
Glycemic index is a measure of the effects of the consumption of a food on ________ levels.
blood glucose
Moderate alcohol intake for men is no more than _____ drink(s) per day.
2
Hydrogenated vegetable oils are typically ________ than vegetable oils that have not been hydrogenated.
higher in saturated fat
Phytochemicals
occur naturally in plant foods.
To control your blood cholesterol levels, the most important action you can take is to limit the amount of _______________ in your diet.
saturated and trans fats
The recommended daily intake of fiber for women is ________ grams.
25
High sodium condiments include all of the following EXCEPT
lemon juice.
Most of the fats in food take the form of
triglycerides.
Vegetarians
should eat a variety of plant sources of protein.
Cooked or refrigerated foods should not be left at room temperature for more than
2 hours.
The leading source of calories in the American diet is
regular soda.
The Food and Nutrition Board of the National Academies defines ________ as nondigestible carbohydrates that occur naturally in plant foods.
dietary fiber
Which of the following is an example of an unrefined complex carbohydrate?
oatmeal
Which of the following is least likely to be contaminated with mercury?
light tuna
All of the following are examples of water-soluble vitamins EXCEPT
vitamin E.
Fats containing two or more double bonds between carbon atoms are called
polyunsaturated.
Which vitamin enhances the absorption of iron?
vitamin C
Fatty acids with one double bond between carbon atoms are called
monounsaturated.
A good source of omega-3 fatty acids is
salmon.
All of the following nutrients supply the body with energy EXCEPT
vitamins.
The primary function of carbohydrates is to
supply energy to body cells.
Two nutrients of particular concern for women are
calcium and iron.
To control your blood cholesterol levels, the most important action you can take is to limit the amount of _______________ in your diet.
saturated and trans fats
The recommended daily intake of fiber for women is ________ grams.
25
High sodium condiments include all of the following EXCEPT
lemon juice.
Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of
calcium.
Which of the following is NOT a function of fats?
form important components of blood
The primary function of vitamins is to
help chemical reactions take place.
Foods from animal sources usually provide ________ proteins.
complete
The primary source of calcium in the diet is
dairy products.
Several kinds of fish have been promoted as having a positive effect on cardiovascular health because they are rich in
omega-3 fatty acids.
The recommended daily intake of protein is ________ of total daily calories.
10–35%
Two general dietary changes many Americans need to make to following the MyPyramid plan and the DASH eating plan are:
more dark green vegetables and less added sugar
Fats supply the body with _____ calories of energy per gram.
9
The Food and Nutrition Board defines adequate intake of sodium as ________ per day.
1500 mg
Which of the following fats has the most health benefits?
monounsaturated
Which of the following are micronutrients?
minerals
Refined carbohydrates
are lower in fiber and vitamins than unrefined carbohydrates.
An amino acid is
a protein building block.
Endurance athletes may need to consume additional
carbohydrates.
calcium.
Which of the following is NOT a function of fats?
form important components of blood
Foods from plant sources usually provide ________ proteins.
incomplete
All of the following are true statements about dietary supplements EXCEPT
The potency of herbal supplements is consistent from brand to brand.
Excess protein in the diet
is changed into fat for energy storage.
Complete protein sources
supply all essential amino acids.
Individuals with high blood pressure may benefit from dietary restriction of
sodium.
During high-intensity exercise, muscles primarily get their energy from
carbohydrates.
Which of the following is a cruciferous vegetable?
broccoli
Protein makes up all of the following EXCEPT
adipose tissue.
Which one of the following types of fat raises the level of HDL cholesterol in the blood?
monounsaturated fatty acids
The Dietary Reference Intakes
are designed to prevent nutritional deficiencies and chronic diseases.
Which of the following is a source of incomplete protein?
beans
A by-product of hydrogenation is
trans fatty acids.
A guideline for food safety is to
cook stuffing separately from poultry.
Fiber benefits health in all of the following ways EXCEPT
lowering risk of osteoporosis.
Essential nutrients are best described as nutrients that
must be obtained from food because the body can't manufacture sufficient amounts of them.
Antioxidants
protect cells from damage by blocking the formation of free radicals.
Proteins supply the body with _____ calories of energy per gram.
4
All of the following are good strategies for reducing saturated and trans fat intake EXCEPT
using stick margarine instead of vegetable oil.
Anemia is associated with a deficiency in
iron.
Minerals
help regulate body functions.
For athletes engaged in heavy strength training the ACSM and ADA recommend protein intake of
1.7 g/kg of body weight.
All of the following are examples of fat-soluble vitamins EXCEPT vitamin
B-12.
Men's diets are most likely to include less-than-recommended levels of
fruit.
Glycemic index is a measure of the effects of the consumption of a food on ________ levels.
blood glucose
Moderate alcohol intake for men is no more than _____ drink(s) per day.
2
Hydrogenated vegetable oils are typically ________ than vegetable oils that have not been hydrogenated.
higher in saturated fat
Phytochemicals
occur naturally in plant foods.
To control your blood cholesterol levels, the most important action you can take is to limit the amount of _______________ in your diet.
saturated and trans fats
The recommended daily intake of fiber for women is ________ grams.
25
High sodium condiments include all of the following EXCEPT
lemon juice.
Most of the fats in food take the form of
triglycerides.
Vegetarians
should eat a variety of plant sources of protein.
Cooked or refrigerated foods should not be left at room temperature for more than
2 hours.
The leading source of calories in the American diet is
regular soda.
The Food and Nutrition Board of the National Academies defines ________ as nondigestible carbohydrates that occur naturally in plant foods.
dietary fiber
Which of the following is an example of an unrefined complex carbohydrate?
oatmeal
Which of the following is least likely to be contaminated with mercury?
light tuna
All of the following are examples of water-soluble vitamins EXCEPT
vitamin E.
Fats containing two or more double bonds between carbon atoms are called
polyunsaturated.
Which vitamin enhances the absorption of iron?
vitamin C
Fatty acids with one double bond between carbon atoms are called
monounsaturated.
A good source of omega-3 fatty acids is
salmon.
All of the following nutrients supply the body with energy EXCEPT
vitamins.
The primary function of carbohydrates is to
supply energy to body cells.
Two nutrients of particular concern for women are
calcium and iron.
To control your blood cholesterol levels, the most important action you can take is to limit the amount of _______________ in your diet.
saturated and trans fats
The recommended daily intake of fiber for women is ________ grams.
25
High sodium condiments include all of the following EXCEPT
lemon juice.
Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of
calcium.
Which of the following is NOT a function of fats?
form important components of blood
The primary function of vitamins is to
help chemical reactions take place.
Foods from animal sources usually provide ________ proteins.
complete
The primary source of calcium in the diet is
dairy products.
Several kinds of fish have been promoted as having a positive effect on cardiovascular health because they are rich in
omega-3 fatty acids.
The recommended daily intake of protein is ________ of total daily calories.
10–35%
Two general dietary changes many Americans need to make to following the MyPyramid plan and the DASH eating plan are:
more dark green vegetables and less added sugar
Fats supply the body with _____ calories of energy per gram.
9
The Food and Nutrition Board defines adequate intake of sodium as ________ per day.
1500 mg
Which of the following fats has the most health benefits?
monounsaturated
Which of the following are micronutrients?
minerals
Refined carbohydrates
are lower in fiber and vitamins than unrefined carbohydrates.
An amino acid is
a protein building block.
Endurance athletes may need to consume additional
carbohydrates.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 3
Olympic-caliber athletes may be able to increase their metabolic rate by
2000%.
Regular physical activity is linked to all of the following EXCEPT
lower endorphin levels.
In addition to pulse counting, one may also monitor exercise intensity by using
ratings of perceived exertion.
___________ supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart.
Coronary arteries
Fat is utilized as a fuel more efficiently during periods of
prolonged exercise.
The two upper chambers of the heart in which blood collects before passing it to the lower chambers are called
atria.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is defined as
the basic form of energy used by cells.
Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) is
the best measure of the capacity of the cardiorespiratory system.
The nonoxidative energy system typically provides energy for
10–120 seconds.
The small blood vessels that connect the arteries and veins and distribute blood to all parts of the body are the
capillaries.
Excess loss of body fluid is called
dehydration.
The largest artery in the body is the
aorta.
During digestion, most carbohydrates are broken down into
glucose.
During systole, the heart is
contracting.
An appropriate exercise heart rate for an average individual is ________ of maximum heart rate.
75%
Recommended treatment of minor soft tissue injuries such as bruisesincludes all of the following EXCEPT
massage.
Alveoli serve what function in the lungs?
They allow for the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
If heat loss exceeds the body's ability to warm itself, ________ can result.
hypothermia
Systemic circulation carries blood to all organs of the body EXCEPT
the lungs.
As the result of regular endurance exercise, resting heart rate is often
10–20 beats per minute lower.
During the initial phase of an exercise program, a beginner should
exercise at the low end of the target heart rate range.
The oxidative energy system produces ATP in structures called
mitochondria.
Appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
push-ups.
To obtain a good endurance workout and boost cardiorespiratory fitness during low to moderate intensity activities such as walking or swimming slowly, the heart rate should be kept in the lower end of the target zone for
45 minutes, three times per week.
The portion of the circulation controlled by the right side of the heart is the ________ circulation.
pulmonary
The storage form of carbohydrate in the liver, muscles, and kidney is
glycogen.
An example of an activity that primarily uses the immediate energy system is
weight lifting.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiorespiratory system?
the brain
Which of the following requires immediate medical attention?
heat stroke
A typical resting heart rate for a normal individual is around
60bpm.
2000%.
Regular physical activity is linked to all of the following EXCEPT
lower endorphin levels.
In addition to pulse counting, one may also monitor exercise intensity by using
ratings of perceived exertion.
___________ supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart.
Coronary arteries
Fat is utilized as a fuel more efficiently during periods of
prolonged exercise.
The two upper chambers of the heart in which blood collects before passing it to the lower chambers are called
atria.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is defined as
the basic form of energy used by cells.
Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max) is
the best measure of the capacity of the cardiorespiratory system.
The nonoxidative energy system typically provides energy for
10–120 seconds.
The small blood vessels that connect the arteries and veins and distribute blood to all parts of the body are the
capillaries.
Excess loss of body fluid is called
dehydration.
The largest artery in the body is the
aorta.
During digestion, most carbohydrates are broken down into
glucose.
During systole, the heart is
contracting.
An appropriate exercise heart rate for an average individual is ________ of maximum heart rate.
75%
Recommended treatment of minor soft tissue injuries such as bruisesincludes all of the following EXCEPT
massage.
Alveoli serve what function in the lungs?
They allow for the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
If heat loss exceeds the body's ability to warm itself, ________ can result.
hypothermia
Systemic circulation carries blood to all organs of the body EXCEPT
the lungs.
As the result of regular endurance exercise, resting heart rate is often
10–20 beats per minute lower.
During the initial phase of an exercise program, a beginner should
exercise at the low end of the target heart rate range.
The oxidative energy system produces ATP in structures called
mitochondria.
Appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
push-ups.
To obtain a good endurance workout and boost cardiorespiratory fitness during low to moderate intensity activities such as walking or swimming slowly, the heart rate should be kept in the lower end of the target zone for
45 minutes, three times per week.
The portion of the circulation controlled by the right side of the heart is the ________ circulation.
pulmonary
The storage form of carbohydrate in the liver, muscles, and kidney is
glycogen.
An example of an activity that primarily uses the immediate energy system is
weight lifting.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiorespiratory system?
the brain
Which of the following requires immediate medical attention?
heat stroke
A typical resting heart rate for a normal individual is around
60bpm.
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 2
People who stop exercising can expect to lose up to 50% of their fitness improvement within
2 months.
Another name for cycle training is
periodization.
Cardiorespiratory endurance is developed best by activities that
involve continuous rhythmic movements of large-muscle groups.
Muscular strength and endurance are developed best by activities that
involve working with resistance such as weights or performing calisthenic exercises.
Flexibility is best developed by
stretching major muscle groups regularly.
Healthy body composition is developed best by the combination of
sensible diet, resistance training, and endurance exercise.
A key to improving fitness is to
exercise consistently.
Overuse or overtraining injuries are MOST likely to occur when you
increase the intensity of exercise before increasing the time (duration) of exercise.
Which one of the following statements about cooling down is true?
It restores circulation to its normal resting condition.
Which of the following sources of fitness information is probably LEAST likely to provide useful advice?
a person who looks physically fit
An exercise stress test can determine if you have
symptoms of heart disease.
The best way to lose body fat is through
sensible diet and regular exercise.
The body adapting to a gradual increase in the amount of exercise is the definition of
progressive overload.
All of the following are considered skill-related fitness components EXCEPT
flexibility.
The maximal improvement in the body's ability to transport and use oxygen that people can realistically expect as a result of training is about
15–30%.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding exercise intensity?
Fitness benefits occur when a person exercises harder than his or her normal level of activity.
If you must temporarily stop exercising regularly, which of the following factors should be maintained while the others are curtailed?
intensity
The recommended time (duration) for cardiorespiratory endurance exercise is _____ minutes.
20–60
Healthy body composition is best characterized by a
high proportion of muscle, bone, and water and a low proportion of fat.
Flexibility is best described as
the ability to move the joints through their full range of motion.
Muscular strength is the
amount of force a muscle can produce with a single maximum effort.
Heart disease is linked most closely with
low cardiorespiratory fitness.
As a person's cardiorespiratory endurance increases, the
resting heart rate decreases.
The ability of the body to perform prolonged, large-muscle, dynamic exercise at moderate-to-high levels of intensity is
cardiorespiratory endurance.
All of the following are components of health-related fitness EXCEPT
speed.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding physical activity?
Activity should be in the form of a formal, continuous exercise program.
Exercise is a subset of physical activity that is
planned, structured, and repetitive.
Thelatest version of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends ________ for the promotion of health.
burning about 150 calories per day through physical activity
Physical activity can be defined as
muscular movement of the body that requires energy to produce.
SMART goals are
specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time relevant
2 months.
Another name for cycle training is
periodization.
Cardiorespiratory endurance is developed best by activities that
involve continuous rhythmic movements of large-muscle groups.
Muscular strength and endurance are developed best by activities that
involve working with resistance such as weights or performing calisthenic exercises.
Flexibility is best developed by
stretching major muscle groups regularly.
Healthy body composition is developed best by the combination of
sensible diet, resistance training, and endurance exercise.
A key to improving fitness is to
exercise consistently.
Overuse or overtraining injuries are MOST likely to occur when you
increase the intensity of exercise before increasing the time (duration) of exercise.
Which one of the following statements about cooling down is true?
It restores circulation to its normal resting condition.
Which of the following sources of fitness information is probably LEAST likely to provide useful advice?
a person who looks physically fit
An exercise stress test can determine if you have
symptoms of heart disease.
The best way to lose body fat is through
sensible diet and regular exercise.
The body adapting to a gradual increase in the amount of exercise is the definition of
progressive overload.
All of the following are considered skill-related fitness components EXCEPT
flexibility.
The maximal improvement in the body's ability to transport and use oxygen that people can realistically expect as a result of training is about
15–30%.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding exercise intensity?
Fitness benefits occur when a person exercises harder than his or her normal level of activity.
If you must temporarily stop exercising regularly, which of the following factors should be maintained while the others are curtailed?
intensity
The recommended time (duration) for cardiorespiratory endurance exercise is _____ minutes.
20–60
Healthy body composition is best characterized by a
high proportion of muscle, bone, and water and a low proportion of fat.
Flexibility is best described as
the ability to move the joints through their full range of motion.
Muscular strength is the
amount of force a muscle can produce with a single maximum effort.
Heart disease is linked most closely with
low cardiorespiratory fitness.
As a person's cardiorespiratory endurance increases, the
resting heart rate decreases.
The ability of the body to perform prolonged, large-muscle, dynamic exercise at moderate-to-high levels of intensity is
cardiorespiratory endurance.
All of the following are components of health-related fitness EXCEPT
speed.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding physical activity?
Activity should be in the form of a formal, continuous exercise program.
Exercise is a subset of physical activity that is
planned, structured, and repetitive.
Thelatest version of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends ________ for the promotion of health.
burning about 150 calories per day through physical activity
Physical activity can be defined as
muscular movement of the body that requires energy to produce.
SMART goals are
specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time relevant
Introduction to Health - Fit and Well 1
Which is an example of procrastination?
I better wait until after the semester break to start my program.
Factors involved in wellness
often interact.
Physical wellness includes
learning about symptoms of disease.
Which is an example of blaming?
My workout partner did not call me to go to the fitness center.
A capacity to think critically is an example of
intellectual wellness.
A low level of motivation or commitment to change an unwanted behavior may be due to
a lack of negative effects from the unwanted behavior.
A personal contract for behavior change
states your objective and gives details of your plan for behavior change.
The choices of techniques and level of effort of a behavior change program
may need to be reevaluated.
A stress barrier to a behavior change plan
may require you to learn a stress-management technique.
The key to a successful behavior change program is
a plan that sets goals.
Which of the following is an example of controlling environmental stimuli that provoke a target behavior?
studying in the library instead of near the student union snack bar
According to the transtheoretical, or "stages of change," model for making changes in your behavior, the stage that requires the greatest commitment of time and energy is
action.
Strategies that can aid in behavior change include all of the following EXCEPT
withholding rewards.
The most effective way of dealing with disease is
prevention.
When devising a strategy or plan of action, a necessary preparatory step might be
purchasing walking shoes for a fitness class.
In a behavior change program, a trap related to social influences might be
trying to get friends or family to change their behavior.
Donna is about 25 pounds overweight, has tried a variety of diets and has repeatedly failed to maintain weight loss. She defends her weight with the explanation that almost all of her relatives are overweight and none has ever been successful with attempts to lose weight. Donna can best be described as
having an external locus of control.
Which is an example of rationalization?
I couldn't exercise today because I had to visit a friend.
The order in which the steps in a behavior change program are implemented is
monitor behavior, analyze data, set goals, devise plan, make contract.
The primary determinant of behavior in people with a strong internal locus of control is found in
themselves.
Inappropriate stress management can lead to all of the following EXCEPT
decreased susceptibility to diseases.
Tobacco use is
associated with 8 of the top 10 causes of death in the United States.
Locus of control is best defined as
the figurative "place" considered responsible for events in a person's life.
An example of an appropriate reward for achieving a behavior change goal would be
seeing a movie.
Optimism, trust, and self-confidence are components of
emotional wellness.
In order to ensure that a behavior change program continues, it is best to
change the parts of the plan that are giving you problems.
The six dimensions of wellness include all of the following EXCEPT
dietary wellness.
When choosing a target behavior to change, you maximize your chances of success by
starting with something simple like snacking on candy.
A landmark event or new information
can initiate a desire to change an unwanted behavior.
Monitoring your behavior involves recording all of the following EXCEPT
several problem behaviors simultaneously.
I better wait until after the semester break to start my program.
Factors involved in wellness
often interact.
Physical wellness includes
learning about symptoms of disease.
Which is an example of blaming?
My workout partner did not call me to go to the fitness center.
A capacity to think critically is an example of
intellectual wellness.
A low level of motivation or commitment to change an unwanted behavior may be due to
a lack of negative effects from the unwanted behavior.
A personal contract for behavior change
states your objective and gives details of your plan for behavior change.
The choices of techniques and level of effort of a behavior change program
may need to be reevaluated.
A stress barrier to a behavior change plan
may require you to learn a stress-management technique.
The key to a successful behavior change program is
a plan that sets goals.
Which of the following is an example of controlling environmental stimuli that provoke a target behavior?
studying in the library instead of near the student union snack bar
According to the transtheoretical, or "stages of change," model for making changes in your behavior, the stage that requires the greatest commitment of time and energy is
action.
Strategies that can aid in behavior change include all of the following EXCEPT
withholding rewards.
The most effective way of dealing with disease is
prevention.
When devising a strategy or plan of action, a necessary preparatory step might be
purchasing walking shoes for a fitness class.
In a behavior change program, a trap related to social influences might be
trying to get friends or family to change their behavior.
Donna is about 25 pounds overweight, has tried a variety of diets and has repeatedly failed to maintain weight loss. She defends her weight with the explanation that almost all of her relatives are overweight and none has ever been successful with attempts to lose weight. Donna can best be described as
having an external locus of control.
Which is an example of rationalization?
I couldn't exercise today because I had to visit a friend.
The order in which the steps in a behavior change program are implemented is
monitor behavior, analyze data, set goals, devise plan, make contract.
The primary determinant of behavior in people with a strong internal locus of control is found in
themselves.
Inappropriate stress management can lead to all of the following EXCEPT
decreased susceptibility to diseases.
Tobacco use is
associated with 8 of the top 10 causes of death in the United States.
Locus of control is best defined as
the figurative "place" considered responsible for events in a person's life.
An example of an appropriate reward for achieving a behavior change goal would be
seeing a movie.
Optimism, trust, and self-confidence are components of
emotional wellness.
In order to ensure that a behavior change program continues, it is best to
change the parts of the plan that are giving you problems.
The six dimensions of wellness include all of the following EXCEPT
dietary wellness.
When choosing a target behavior to change, you maximize your chances of success by
starting with something simple like snacking on candy.
A landmark event or new information
can initiate a desire to change an unwanted behavior.
Monitoring your behavior involves recording all of the following EXCEPT
several problem behaviors simultaneously.
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